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#Post#: 260--------------------------------------------------
God's Omniscience?
By: ClassicalLiberal.Theist Date: October 28, 2021, 2:57 pm
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Not sure if anyone still chats here, but if you're reading this,
good to "see" you. I'm having a hard time working through
Aquinas' (and Feser's) demonstration of God's omniscience.
Feser appeals to the PPC in order to prove God's omniscience
(since God is the cause of all things, all things must exist in
God in some way); however, I don't see why we need to ground
things in God by way of knowledge. Meaning, can't we just say
that all things exist in God because of his omnipotence, his
capacity to do all things? That seems just as good to me. For
example, when a robot creates something, that thing must exist
in some way in the robot, but we don't say it has knowledge.
Rather, the robot just possesses the ability to create that
thing. This line of argument, as far as I can tell, can be
applied to God as well.
As for Aquinas, he states that immateriality is the
knowledge-making-property of beings. He then continues, since
God is the highest degree of immateriality, he must also be
omniscient. But this doesn't seem right to me. I think that
knowledge entails immateriality, but I don't know if this
necessarily works the other way around.
Hopefully someone has some answers. Thanks!
#Post#: 261--------------------------------------------------
Re: God's Omniscience?
By: theophilius Date: November 9, 2021, 7:14 am
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Hello ClassicalLiberal.
Keep in mind that a robot does not create something but
"assemble", "produce", something. The act of creation, properly
speaking, can be said of a God's act only because only God can
create without any existing thing (creatio ex-nihilo). Therefore
when God creates, necessarily knows what create, as a composer
knows what music he is composing. Now, since nothing can exists
without the act of existance and the act of existance is God's
first cause, it follows that God knows everything that exists or
can exists.
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